So if the sperm binds to the zona pellucida to trigger the acrosomal enzymes, and the corona radiata is outside of that, then it must’ve gotten past the corona radiata already by the time it binds and uses its acrosomal enzymes?

But so why does Kaplan say the acrosomal enzymes are used to penetrate both the corona radiata and the zona pellucida? How could that be if the corona radiata is before the thing that triggers the acrosomal enzymes release?