https://preview.redd.it/e5oxhopsf7zh1.png?width=3262&format=png&auto=webp&s=1efe1a23b7dfa1700132d0bef0cf73f3d04ce3eb

Does everyone agree or disagree? because this seems like a very important element, but Dave Hurwitz completely says it doesn't exist. At least from what I have heard, really the putting all violins on 1 side is because it makes it easier for recordings. An American tradition.

Original Video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AyG7cZ7AvAQ&t=261s

EDIT: Context for TLDR:

Dave Hurwitz is saying that the stereophonic effect of having violins on either side of the orchestra does not come across both in recordings AND in live performances. The topic of the video is about Ivan Fischer cancelling with Berlin Philharmonic because of the Berlin Phil didn't allow Ivan Fischer to do his own stage setup so the violin on either side question came up.

The commentor then pointed out that in Tchaikovsky's 6th symphony he very much wrote the way he did because of the stereophonic effect.…